Friday Pop Quiz 5/22/2026
A 64-year old-woman with a history of hypertension and poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with these painful lesions on her legs that have slowly progressed for years. She is unable to tolerate compression. What is an appropriate next step?
A. Surgical reperfusion
B. Oral prednisone
C. Topical tacrolimus
D. Oral cellcept
E. Intravenous vancomycin
To find out the corre …
A 64-year old-woman with a history of hypertension and poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with these painful lesions on her legs that have slowly progressed for years. She is unable to tolerate compression. What is an appropriate next step?
A. Surgical reperfusion
B. Oral prednisone
C. Topical tacrolimus
D. Oral cellcept
E. Intravenous vancomycin
To find out the corre … 
The clear-cell variant of this neoplasm is associated with which of the following?
A. Brooke-Spiegler syndrome
B. Cowden disease
C. Rombo syndrome
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Hypothyroidism
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
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