Friday Pop Quiz 5/8/2026
A 40 year old male presents to clinic with involvement of greater than 50% of his scalp. Topical therapies and intralesional injections in clinic have not resulted in much improvement. Before starting the appropriate FDA approved long-term oral medication, which laboratory blood work should be ordered?
A. Quantiferon gold test only
B. Fasting glucose, Hemoglobin A1C, lipid panel, and cor …
A 40 year old male presents to clinic with involvement of greater than 50% of his scalp. Topical therapies and intralesional injections in clinic have not resulted in much improvement. Before starting the appropriate FDA approved long-term oral medication, which laboratory blood work should be ordered?
A. Quantiferon gold test only
B. Fasting glucose, Hemoglobin A1C, lipid panel, and cor …
Treatment of a 36-year-old pregnant woman in this image involves inhibition of which of the following proteins?
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Chloride ion channel
C. Fumarate reductase
D. Metalloproteinase
E. Sodium transport channel
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
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What is the most likely cause of this infection?
A. T. tonsurans
B. T. schoenleinii
C. M. canis
D. T. mentag
E. T. rubrum
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here. …
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this 56-year-old woman with pruritic hair loss for 3 months?
A. Lichen planopilaris
B. Androgenetic alopecia
C. Central centrifugal cicatricial alopecia
D. Discoid lupus erythematosus
E. Folliculitis decalvans
F. Alopecia areata
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here. …
An otherwise healthy 50-year-old male presents with the pictured neoplasm on his trunk. Biopsy reveals melanoma, 2.3mm, ulcerated. Wide local excision and sentinel lymph node biopsy is performed, which is negative. What is the best next step?
A. Observation with skin checks q3 months and symptom-guided imaging
B. Adjuvant pembrolizumab
C. Adjuvant dabrafenib + trametinib
D. Adjuv …