Friday Pop Quiz 1/26/2024
A 34-year-old man with no past medical conditions presents with lesions as shown. Of the following, what is the most likely causative agent?
A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Klebsiella
E. Proteus
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here. …
A 34-year-old man with no past medical conditions presents with lesions as shown. Of the following, what is the most likely causative agent?
A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Klebsiella
E. Proteus
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here. … 
Pretibial myxedema (PTM) is a rare complication of Graves' disease. It is characterized by non-pitting edema with hyperpigmented hyperkeratotic papules and plaques on bilateral lower legs. Effective treatments for patients with PTM are lacking. The etiology of PTM is unknown; however, it may be similar to the mechanism of thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy (TAO). Activated fibroblasts produce infla … 
Next Steps in Derm, in partnership with Pigmentary Disorders Exchange Symposium interviewed Dr. Jill S. Waibel, subsection chief of dermatology at Baptist Hospital of Miami, medical director of the Miami Cancer Institute’s Multispecialty Skin Cancer Clinic, and assistant voluntary professor at the University of Miami Miller School of Medicine. Learn about the emerging field of laser-assisted dru … 
At the 2023 Skin of Color Update Conference, attendees had the exciting opportunity to listen to Dr. George Han, MD, PhD, from Northwell Health in New York, discuss the prevalence and characteristics of certain skin conditions, primarily in Asian populations. His lecture highlighted the differences in the presentation, genetics, and treatment responses among Asians compared to other ethnic groups … 
A 38-year-old woman with morbid obesity and major depressive disorder presents for evaluation of lesions on her axillae. Previously, the patient has used topical benzoyl peroxide and has received triamcinolone injections to affected areas with minimal improvement. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the treatment of the patient?
A. Admit to hospital for ertapenem
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