Friday Pop Quiz 8/2/2024
A 57-year-old woman presents to clinic with the lesions (shown). On exam, they involve 11% of her body surface area. She does not have clinically apparent lymphadenopathy. She denies any associated symptoms on review of systems. Punch biopsy shows epidermotropic aggregates of atypical lymphocytes within t …
A 57-year-old woman presents to clinic with the lesions (shown). On exam, they involve 11% of her body surface area. She does not have clinically apparent lymphadenopathy. She denies any associated symptoms on review of systems. Punch biopsy shows epidermotropic aggregates of atypical lymphocytes within t … 
This syndrome presents with multiple keratoacanthomas appearing suddenly during childhood or adolescence and inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern:
A. Ferguson-Smith
B. Grzybowski
C. Gorlin
D. KA centrifugum
E. Buschke-Lowenstein
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here. … 
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Erythema multiforme
B. Annular urticaria
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Fixed drug eruption
E. Polymorphous light eruption
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What of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. Doxycycline
B. Terbinifine oral
C. Adalimumab
D. Acitretin
E. Ivermectin
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here. … 
Which of the following is not a major diagnostic criteria for nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome?
A. Development of >2 BCCs or 1 BCC before the age of 20
B. Odontogenic keratocysts of jaw
C. Palmar or plantar pits (3 or more)
D. Calcification of the falx
E. All of the above are features of nevoid BCC syndrome
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click h … 