Friday Pop Quiz 2/7/2025
A 90-year-old male presents with irregularly shaped macules, 1-4 cm in diameter, that are dark purple with well-defined margins on both forearms. The lesions do not undergo the color changes of a raise and take up to three weeks to resolve. What is the most common cause of this skin condition?
A. Age and photo damage
B. Thick vessel walls
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Hereditary hem …
A 90-year-old male presents with irregularly shaped macules, 1-4 cm in diameter, that are dark purple with well-defined margins on both forearms. The lesions do not undergo the color changes of a raise and take up to three weeks to resolve. What is the most common cause of this skin condition?
A. Age and photo damage
B. Thick vessel walls
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Hereditary hem … 
Which of the following is not true of this condition?
A. Associated with twin gestation
B. Associated with primigravidas
C. Associated with premature labor
D. Associated with maternal obesity
E. Associated with third trimester of pregnancy
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
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In 2022 the FDA approved a medication for the treatment of the condition dipicted in the image. It inhibits the same enzymes as which of the following?
A. Ruxolitinib
B. Abrocitinib
C. Apremilast
D. Adalimumab
E. Tofacitinib
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
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What is the most appropriate action in this otherwise healthy patient based on the image in the photograph?
A. Punch biopsy
B. Tissue culture
C. Reassurance
D. Plain film of the foot
E. Magnetic resonance imaging of the foot
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
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A 37-year-old male presents to an outpatient dermatology clinic with a pruritic, vesicular eruptions with overlying erosions located on the sacral region/lateral abdomen and on bilateral elbows (see image). He had a biopsy performed with another physician last year, and he states that he was told to see a gastroenterologist (GI) for f … 