Friday Pop Quiz 5/22/2026
A 64-year old-woman with a history of hypertension and poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with these painful lesions on her legs that have slowly progressed for years. She is unable to tolerate compression. What is an appropriate next step?
A. Surgical reperfusion
B. Oral prednisone
C. Topical tacrolimus
D. Oral cellcept
E. Intravenous vancomycin
To find out the corre …
A 64-year old-woman with a history of hypertension and poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with these painful lesions on her legs that have slowly progressed for years. She is unable to tolerate compression. What is an appropriate next step?
A. Surgical reperfusion
B. Oral prednisone
C. Topical tacrolimus
D. Oral cellcept
E. Intravenous vancomycin
To find out the corre … 
A 44-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and major depressive disorder presents to the office with the eruption shown for several months. The lesions are also all across the patient's back and have not resolved with twice-daily clobetasol 0.05% ointment application for 2 months. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Intralesional triamcinolone
B. Nar … 
What is the most common cause of hypertension in this patient?
A. Autonomic Dysregulation
B. Optic Glioma
C. Renal Artery Stenosis
D. Medication induced
E. Medullary adrenal gland tumor
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
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